Nursing Compliance

Ensuring nurses stay compliant and confident in their roles means covering key areas of patient care and safety. These 50 essential questions test knowledge in infection control, medication safety, ethical responsibilities, patient safety, and safeguarding. How well does your team perform?

Question 1

What is the main purpose of the Nursing and Midwifery Council (NMC) Code of Conduct?
A) To provide personal career advice for nurses
B) To set professional standards for nurses and midwives to ensure safe and ethical practice (Correct)
C) To dictate the working hours of nurses
D) To manage healthcare funding allocations

The NMC Code outlines professional standards for practice, ensuring patient safety, integrity, and accountability in nursing.

Question 2

What does ‘duty of care’ mean for a nurse?
A) A personal responsibility to provide emotional support to all patients
B) A duty to follow only a doctor’s instructions without question
C) An expectation to work overtime when required
D) A legal and ethical obligation to provide safe, competent, and compassionate care (Correct)

Duty of care means nurses must act in the best interests of their patients and prevent harm.

Question 3

What must a nurse do before performing a procedure on a patient?
A) Ensure the patient has given informed consent (Correct)
B) Inform the patient but proceed without confirmation
C) Rely on verbal consent from the patient’s family
D) Ask a colleague if the procedure is necessary

Informed consent means the patient understands the procedure, risks, and alternatives before agreeing to it.

Question 4

What is an example of a breach of patient confidentiality?
A) Recording patient notes accurately in a secure system
B) Sharing patient information with the medical team involved in their care
C) Discussing a patient’s condition with an unauthorised person (Correct)
D) Informing the patient about their own diagnosis and treatment

Confidentiality is a legal requirement under GDPR and the NMC Code. Patient details must only be shared with those directly involved in their care.

Question 5

What should a nurse do if they witness unethical behaviour from a colleague?
A) Ignore it to avoid workplace conflict
B) Report it through the appropriate professional channels (Correct)
C) Discuss it with the colleague privately and take no further action
D) Wait to see if the issue resolves itself

Whistleblowing protects patient safety and professional integrity by addressing unethical or unsafe practices.

Question 6

Under UK law, when can a nurse refuse to participate in a procedure?
A) If they personally disagree with the treatment but inform their employer appropriately
B) If they feel the procedure is too time-consuming
C) Only if they receive written permission from their manager
D) If it is outside their scope of practice or unsafe for the patient (Correct)

Nurses must only perform procedures they are trained for and must raise concerns about unsafe practices.

Question 7

What is the correct action if a patient lacks capacity to make a medical decision?
A) Follow the Mental Capacity Act 2005 and involve a legal decision-maker if necessary (Correct)
B) Proceed with the treatment without discussion
C) Ask another nurse to make the decision for them
D) Assume the patient would consent and move forward

The Mental Capacity Act ensures decisions are made in the patient’s best interests if they are unable to decide for themselves.

Question 8

What does ‘professional boundaries’ mean in nursing?
A) Becoming personally involved in a patient’s life to offer better care
B) Maintaining appropriate relationships with patients to ensure ethical care (Correct)
C) Accepting gifts from patients as a sign of appreciation
D) Discussing personal issues with patients during care

Professional boundaries help maintain a safe and respectful relationship between nurses and patients.

Question 9

What should a nurse do if they make an error in patient care?
A) Attempt to fix the mistake without informing anyone
B) Only report it if the patient complains
C) Report the incident, document it accurately, and follow hospital policy (Correct)
D) Ignore it if no harm occurred

Transparency and accurate documentation help improve patient safety and prevent future errors.

Question 10

What does the term ‘advocacy’ mean in nursing?
A) Acting in the best interest of the patient and ensuring their voice is heard (Correct)
B) Following all doctor’s orders without considering the patient’s wishes
C) Encouraging patients to agree with medical advice
D) Avoiding patient involvement in decision-making

Nurses play a crucial role in advocating for their patients, ensuring their rights, needs, and preferences are respected.

Question 1

What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infections in healthcare settings?
A) Avoiding contact with all patients
B) Performing regular hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based hand rub (Correct)
C) Taking daily vitamins to boost immunity
D) Wearing gloves at all times

Hand hygiene is the single most effective way to reduce healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). Alcohol-based hand rubs are recommended when hands are not visibly soiled.

Question 2

When should healthcare staff perform hand hygiene?
A) Once per shift
B) Only after direct contact with bodily fluids
C) When moving between hospital wards
D) Before and after patient contact, before aseptic procedures, after exposure to bodily fluids, and after touching patient surroundings (Correct)

Following the “Five Moments for Hand Hygiene” ensures infection control at critical points during patient care.

Question 3

What is the correct order for donning (putting on) personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Gown, mask, goggles/face shield, gloves (Correct)
B) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
C) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
D) Goggles, mask, gown, gloves

PPE should be donned in the correct sequence to minimise contamination risk. Gloves go on last as they touch all other PPE during donning.

Question 4

Which type of PPE is essential when dealing with airborne infections like tuberculosis (TB)?
A) Surgical mask
B) FFP3 respirator mask (Correct)
C) Disposable gloves
D) Plastic apron

Airborne infections require a fit-tested FFP3 respirator to prevent inhaling infectious particles.

Question 5

What is the correct disposal method for used sharps (e.g., needles, scalpels)?
A) Wrap in tissue and place in general waste
B) Recap the needle before disposal in any bin
C) Dispose of immediately in a designated sharps container without recapping (Correct)
D) Flush down the sink

Used sharps should go directly into an approved sharps container to prevent needlestick injuries and cross-contamination.

Question 6

How should a healthcare worker manage a needlestick injury?
A) Disinfect the needle and reuse it
B) Ignore it unless symptoms develop
C) Cover with a plaster and continue working
D) Encourage bleeding, wash with soap and water, report immediately, and seek medical advice (Correct)

Early reporting and medical assessment help reduce the risk of bloodborne infections after a needlestick injury.

Question 7

What is an example of a ‘standard precaution’ in infection control?
A) Treating all patients as potentially infectious and using appropriate PPE (Correct)
B) Using PPE only when a patient is visibly unwell
C) Avoiding close contact with all patients
D) Wearing a face mask at all times, even outside work

Standard precautions apply to all patients to minimise infection risks, regardless of their known infection status.

Question 8

What is the best way to clean a surface contaminated with Clostridium difficile spores?
A) Spray with air freshener
B) Wipe with alcohol-based hand rub
C) Use chlorine-based disinfectants (Correct)
D) Rinse with warm water

Alcohol does not kill C. difficile spores, so bleach-based or chlorine disinfectants are required for proper decontamination.

Question 9

What should be done with a patient who has a highly contagious infection requiring isolation?
A) Keep them in a waiting area until a bed is available
B) Place them in a single-occupancy room with appropriate infection control measures (Correct)
C) Allow visitors without restriction
D) Transfer them to a general ward

Isolation precautions help prevent the spread of infections such as MRSA, C. difficile, or norovirus.

Question 10

Why is it important to complete a full course of antibiotics when prescribed?
A) To avoid unnecessary side effects
B) To strengthen the immune system
C) To increase tolerance to stronger antibiotics
D) To prevent antibiotic resistance and ensure the infection is fully treated (Correct)

Stopping antibiotics early can lead to resistant bacteria, making future infections harder to treat.

Question 1

What is the “Five Rights” principle of medication administration?
A) Right location, right doctor, right patient, right pharmacist, right order
B) Right patient, right hospital, right prescription, right schedule, right doctor
C) Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time (Correct)
D) Right patient, right symptoms, right prescription, right storage, right nurse

Following the “Five Rights” helps prevent medication errors and ensures patient safety.

Question 2

What is the safest way to identify a patient before administering medication?
A) Asking the patient’s name and assuming they are correct
B) Checking the patient’s clothing or room number
C) Relying on a colleague’s verbal confirmation
D) Using two patient identifiers, such as name and date of birth, and confirming against medical records (Correct)

Always use two identifiers, like name and date of birth, to prevent giving medication to the wrong patient.

Question 3

Which route of medication administration has the fastest effect?
A) Intravenous (IV) injection (Correct)
B) Oral tablet
C) Topical cream
D) Intramuscular (IM) injection

IV administration delivers drugs directly into the bloodstream, making it the fastest-acting route.

Question 4

What should a nurse do if a patient refuses to take their prescribed medication?
A) Insist they take it and report them if they refuse
B) Respect their decision, document the refusal, and inform the prescriber (Correct)
C) Crush the tablet and mix it with their food without telling them
D) Discard the medication and move on

Patients have the right to refuse medication. Always document and report refusals appropriately.

Question 5

What is the best action to take if a nurse makes a medication error?
A) Ignore it if the patient does not seem harmed
B) Try to administer another dose to correct it
C) Report the error immediately, monitor the patient, and follow hospital protocol (Correct)
D) Blame the prescribing doctor

Early reporting of medication errors allows for prompt intervention and prevents further harm.

Question 6

What does “PRN” mean on a medication order?
A) Administer as needed (Correct)
B) Administer every 2 hours
C) Administer with food
D) Administer before bedtime

PRN (Latin: “pro re nata”) means “as needed,” commonly used for pain relief or symptom management.

Question 7

Why should nurses avoid crushing or splitting certain tablets?
A) It may improve absorption
B) It makes them easier to swallow
C) It reduces the risk of overdose
D) Some medications are enteric-coated or modified-release, altering their intended effect (Correct)

Crushing extended-release or coated tablets can affect drug release and lead to overdose or ineffectiveness.

Question 8

What is a common sign of an allergic reaction to medication?
A) Sudden increase in energy levels
B) Hives, swelling, or difficulty breathing (Correct)
C) Increased appetite
D) Mild thirst

Allergic reactions can be life-threatening (anaphylaxis). Recognising symptoms early allows for fast intervention.

Question 9

Why is it important to record the time of medication administration?
A) To ensure the patient knows when they took it
B) To ensure nurses follow a strict routine
C) To avoid overdosing and track the effectiveness of the drug (Correct)
D) So the pharmacist has an updated record

Accurate documentation prevents double-dosing and ensures medication effectiveness is monitored.

Question 10

What should a nurse do if a medication label is unclear or the prescription is difficult to read?
A) Clarify with the prescribing doctor or pharmacist before administering (Correct)
B) Guess the correct dosage based on previous prescriptions
C) Administer the smallest dose possible
D) Ask another nurse for their opinion and proceed

Never guess medication instructions. Always confirm unclear prescriptions to prevent errors.

Question 1:

What is the primary goal of patient safety initiatives in healthcare?
a) To increase hospital revenue
b) To ensure all patients receive identical treatment
c) To prevent harm and improve the quality of care (Correct)
d) To reduce the workload of healthcare staff

Patient safety focuses on minimising risks, errors, and harm while enhancing the quality of care.

Question 2:

What is the correct action if a nurse notices a potential safety hazard in the workplace?
a) Report it immediately and take appropriate action to reduce risk (Correct)
b) Wait for a manager to notice the issue
c) Assume someone else will report it later
d) Ignore it unless it has already caused harm

Identifying and reporting safety hazards promptly helps prevent accidents and protects both patients and staff.

Question 3:

What does a ‘Never Event’ refer to in healthcare?
a) A minor medical mistake that does not require reporting
b) A situation where a patient refuses treatment
c) An unexpected death in a hospital
d) A serious, preventable incident that should never happen if proper safety measures are in place (Correct)

Never Events include errors like wrong-site surgery or medication administration mistakes, which are entirely preventable with the right precautions.

Question 4:

What is a key strategy for preventing patient falls in a hospital setting?
a) Keeping all patients in bed at all times
b) Assessing fall risk, ensuring call bells are within reach, and keeping floors clear of hazards (Correct)
c) Allowing only younger patients to walk without assistance
d) Requiring family members to supervise patients

Fall prevention includes proper assessments, clear communication, and environmental safety measures.

Question 5:

If a medication error occurs but the patient does not seem harmed, what should the nurse do?
a) Only report it if the patient complains
b) Correct the error privately without informing anyone
c) Wait to see if any symptoms develop before taking action
d) Report the error immediately and document it accurately (Correct)

All medication errors, even those without harm, should be reported to prevent future risks and improve safety systems.

Question 6:

What is the purpose of a ‘risk assessment’ in healthcare?
a) To identify potential hazards and implement measures to reduce patient harm (Correct)
b) To decide which patients receive priority treatment
c) To track staff performance
d) To record patient personal details

Risk assessments help healthcare teams proactively identify and manage potential safety issues before they cause harm.

Question 7:

What should a nurse do if they suspect a patient is at risk of developing pressure ulcers?
a) Ask the patient if they feel comfortable and take no further steps
b) Wait until signs of skin breakdown appear before taking action
c) Reposition the patient regularly and use appropriate pressure-relief equipment (Correct)
d) Only reposition the patient if a doctor orders it

Preventing pressure ulcers requires regular repositioning, skin checks, and appropriate support surfaces.

Question 8:

What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)?
a) Wearing gloves at all times
b) Practicing proper hand hygiene before and after patient contact (Correct)
c) Only isolating patients with visible symptoms
d) Using antibiotics for all patients as a precaution

Hand hygiene is the single most effective method to prevent the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

Question 9:

Why is accurate documentation important in patient safety?
a) It provides a clear record of patient care and helps prevent errors (Correct)
b) It is only useful for legal protection
c) It is a way to track how quickly nurses complete tasks
d) It is only necessary when a patient experiences complications

Accurate documentation ensures continuity of care, prevents mistakes, and supports legal and ethical responsibilities.

Question 10:

If a patient experiences a sudden change in condition, what is the nurse’s first priority?
a) Administer medication without consulting a doctor
b) Inform the patient’s family first before taking action
c) Document the change and wait for the next scheduled review
d) Assess the patient and escalate care immediately if needed (Correct)

Early recognition and timely intervention are critical in preventing deterioration and ensuring patient safety.

Question 1:

What is the main purpose of safeguarding in healthcare?
a) To protect healthcare staff from patient complaints
b) To ensure all patients receive equal treatment
c) To promote patient independence regardless of risk
d) To protect individuals from abuse, neglect, and exploitation (Correct)

Safeguarding ensures that vulnerable individuals, including children and adults at risk, are protected from harm and receive appropriate care.

Question 2:

Which of the following is a key principle of safeguarding?
a) Keeping all patient information confidential at all times
b) Providing medical treatment regardless of the patient’s wishes
c) Empowering individuals to make their own decisions while protecting them from harm (Correct)
d) Prioritising younger patients over older patients when safeguarding concerns arise

Safeguarding balances protection with respect for individual autonomy, ensuring vulnerable people have control over their own care whenever possible.

Question 3:

What is the first action a nurse should take if they suspect a patient is being abused?
a) Confront the suspected abuser
b) Investigate the situation independently
c) Discuss their concerns only with the patient’s family
d) Report concerns immediately to the appropriate safeguarding lead (Correct)

Safeguarding concerns must be reported promptly so they can be properly investigated and addressed by the correct authorities.

Question 4:

Which of the following is a possible indicator of neglect in a vulnerable patient?
a) Frequent visits from family members
b) Clean and appropriate clothing
c) Sudden weight loss, dehydration, or untreated medical conditions (Correct)
d) Patient making positive comments about their care

Neglect can present as malnutrition, poor hygiene, and untreated medical conditions due to inadequate care or attention.

Question 5:

Under UK law, which group of individuals is most specifically protected under safeguarding legislation?
a) All adults in employment
b) Only individuals with physical disabilities
c) Children and adults at risk of harm or exploitation (Correct)
d) All patients in hospital settings

Safeguarding laws specifically protect children and adults at risk, including those with disabilities, mental health conditions, or other vulnerabilities.

Question 6:

What is the purpose of a Disclosure and Barring Service (DBS) check?
a) To check a healthcare worker’s financial history
b) To assess an individual’s medical records before employment
c) To identify whether a person has a criminal record that makes them unsuitable to work with vulnerable individuals (Correct)
d) To determine a person’s eligibility for NHS treatment

DBS checks help ensure that those working with vulnerable people do not have a history of offences that could put them at risk.

Question 7:

What should a nurse do if a patient discloses they are being abused but asks them not to tell anyone?
a) Respect the patient’s request and take no further action
b) Document the conversation but not report it
c) Reassure the patient, explain that safeguarding laws require reporting, and escalate the concern (Correct)
d) Only report it if the patient has visible injuries

Safeguarding laws require professionals to act when someone is at risk, even if the person does not want the abuse reported.

Question 8:

Which of the following is an example of financial abuse?
a) Withholding a patient’s medication
b) Ignoring a patient’s care needs
c) Forcing a patient to accept medical treatment
d) Coercing a patient into giving money or access to their financial resources (Correct)

Financial abuse includes theft, fraud, or manipulating someone into giving away money or possessions.

Question 9:

What is the main purpose of the Mental Capacity Act 2005 in safeguarding?
a) To determine if a person is fit to work in healthcare
b) To provide guidelines on treating infectious diseases
c) To ensure individuals who lack capacity receive decisions made in their best interests (Correct)
d) To enforce disciplinary action on healthcare professionals

The Mental Capacity Act ensures that individuals unable to make informed decisions receive care that is in their best interests while respecting their rights.

Question 10:

If a patient experiences a sudden change in condition, what is the nurse’s first priority?
a) Administer medication without consulting a doctor
b) Inform the patient’s family first before taking action
c) Document the change and wait for the next scheduled review
d) Assess the patient and escalate care immediately if needed (Correct)

Early recognition and timely intervention are critical in preventing deterioration and ensuring patient safety.

Want a structured way to test and improve your staff’s knowledge? Our tailored quizzes cover all key areas. Get in touch to see how we can help!

Colin King – CEO of HR Quizzes